The actual examination for MCEE MBBS has 200 questions over three hours, as set by the Medical Education Council of Nepal. This 50-question set is a shortened practice test, not a full-length official examination.
MECEE-BL MBBS Mock Test at a Glance
Practice questions : 50 MCQs
Suggested time : 45 minutes
Question format: Single best answer
Options per question : 4 (A–D)
Subject-wise distribution for MECEE MBBS Mock Test
The subject distribution for the MECEE Mock Test is 50 Physics, 50 Chemistry, 40 Zoology, 40 Botany, and 20 MAT questions as per the revised MECEE MBBS syllabus. Here, the shorter test uses a representative selection rather than the exact official proportions.
| Subjects | Questions in this practice set |
|---|---|
| Physics | 13 |
| Chemistry | 13 |
| Zoology | 10 |
| Botany | 10 |
| Mental Agility Test | 4 |
| Total | 50 |
Physics MCQs (Questions 1–10)
Choose the single best answer for each question.
1. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s² for 6 seconds. What is its final velocity?
A. 6 m/s
B. 8 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 14 m/s
2. A 4 Ω resistor is connected to a 12 V battery. What current flows through the resistor?
A. 2 A
B. 3 A
C. 4 A
D. 48 A
3. A projectile is launched at an angle of 30° to the horizontal with a speed of 20 m/s. Take \(g=10\text{ m/s}^2\) and neglect air resistance. What is its maximum height?
A. 5 m
B. 10 m
C. 15 m
D. 20 m
4. Which thermodynamic process takes place at constant volume?
A. Isothermal
B. Isobaric
C. Adiabatic
D. Isochoric
5. A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. What is its power?
A. +2 D
B. +5 D
C. −2 D
D. −5 D
6. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 4 hours. What fraction remains after 12 hours?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
7. A wave travels at 340 m/s and has a frequency of 170 Hz. What is its wavelength?
A. 0.5 m
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
D. 4 m
8. Two capacitors of 2 μF and 4 μF are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent capacitance?
A. 1.33 μF
B. 2 μF
C. 4 μF
D. 6 μF
9. A force of 10 N acts on a body and displaces it by 5 m in the direction of the force. How much work is done?
A. 2 J
B. 15 J
C. 50 J
D. 100 J
10. In the photoelectric effect, what happens when the frequency of incident light increases above the threshold frequency while intensity remains constant?
A. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons increases.
B. The work function of the metal increases.
C. The threshold frequency increases.
D. The speed of light decreases.
Chemistry MCQs (Questions 11–20)
11. How many moles are present in 22 g of carbon dioxide (CO₂)? Use molar mass = 44 g/mol.
A. 0.25 mol
B. 0.5 mol
C. 1 mol
D. 2 mol
12. What is the pH of a \(1\times10^{-4}\) M strong monoprotic acid solution at 25°C?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 10
13. Which element has the highest electronegativity on the Pauling scale?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Chlorine
D. Fluorine
14. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄?
A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. −2
15. Which type of bond is formed by sharing electron pairs between atoms?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
16. For the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), what is the effect of increasing pressure at constant temperature?
A. The equilibrium shifts towards ammonia.
B. The equilibrium shifts towards nitrogen and hydrogen.
C. The equilibrium constant necessarily increases.
D. The equilibrium position remains unchanged.
17. Which reagent is commonly used to distinguish an aldehyde from most ketones by the silver-mirror test?
A. Tollens’ reagent
B. Neutral ferric chloride
C. Bromine water
D. Sodium bicarbonate solution
18. What is the hybridization of each carbon atom in ethene (C₂H₄)?
A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. dsp²
19. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
A. Ethane
B. Ethene
C. Benzene
D. Ethyne
20. What is the molarity of a solution containing 0.2 mol of solute in 500 mL of final solution?
A. 0.1 M
B. 0.2 M
C. 0.4 M
D. 2.5 M
Zoology MCQs (Questions 21–30)
21. What is the functional unit of the human kidney?
A. Neuron
B. Nephron
C. Alveolus
D. Villus
22. Which hormone lowers blood glucose concentration?
A. Glucagon
B. Adrenaline
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
23. Which part of the human brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance?
A. Cerebrum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
24. Which blood component is primarily responsible for oxygen transport?
A. Platelets
B. Plasma proteins
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
25. Which cells produce antibodies following activation and differentiation of B lymphocytes?
A. Plasma cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Platelets
D. Erythrocytes
26. Which type of cell division normally produces haploid gametes in animals?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
27. Which organism causes malaria in humans?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Trypanosoma brucei
C. Plasmodium species
D. Leishmania donovani
28. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary vein
29. Which part of the human respiratory system is the main site of gas exchange?
A. Trachea
B. Larynx
C. Alveoli
D. Nasal cavity
30. In a Mendelian cross Aa × Aa, with A completely dominant over a, what proportion of offspring is expected to show the recessive phenotype?
A. 0
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 3/4
Botany MCQs (Questions 31–40)
31. Which organelle is the primary site of photosynthesis in plant cells?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Ribosome
C. Chloroplast
D. Lysosome
32. Which plant tissue transports water and mineral salts mainly from roots to aerial parts?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Epidermis
D. Cortex
33. Which plant hormone is most closely associated with apical dominance and cell elongation in suitable tissues?
A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Cytokinin
D. Auxin
34. What is the principal role of stomata in leaves?
A. Absorption of minerals from soil
B. Gas exchange and regulation of water loss
C. Transport of sugars over long distances
D. Production of pollen grains
35. Which process produces two genetically similar daughter cells for growth and repair in a plant?
A. Meiosis
B. Fertilization
C. Mitosis
D. Pollination
36. Which plant tissue is chiefly responsible for transporting sugars from source organs to sink organs?
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Cork
37. In a typical angiosperm, which structure develops into the seed after fertilization?
A. Ovary wall
B. Stigma
C. Ovule
D. Anther
38. Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium commonly associated with legume root nodules?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Rhizobium
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Salmonella typhi
39. Which ecological pyramid is always upright because energy decreases at successive trophic levels?
A. Pyramid of numbers
B. Pyramid of biomass
C. Pyramid of energy
D. Pyramid of organism size
40. Which plant group produces seeds but does not enclose them within an ovary-derived fruit?
A. Bryophytes
B. Pteridophytes
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
Mental Agility Test (Questions 41–50)
These questions practise numerical reasoning, logical relationships, sequences and verbal reasoning. They are original practice items.
41. Find the next number in the sequence: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, __.
A. 36
B. 40
C. 42
D. 44
42. If all doctors are graduates and all graduates are educated, which conclusion must be true?
A. All educated people are doctors.
B. All doctors are educated.
C. All graduates are doctors.
D. No doctors are educated.
43. A student answers 40 questions correctly out of 50. What percentage is correct?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
44. Find the odd one out.
A. Square
B. Triangle
C. Circle
D. Cube
45. If CAT is coded as DBU by shifting each letter one position forward in the alphabet, how is DOG coded using the same rule?
A. EPH
B. CNG
C. EOG
D. FPH
46. A person walks 3 km east and then 4 km north. What is the shortest straight-line distance from the starting point?
A. 4 km
B. 5 km
C. 6 km
D. 7 km
47. Complete the analogy: Book is to reading as fork is to __.
A. Drawing
B. Writing
C. Eating
D. Listening
48. Five machines produce five identical items in five minutes at a constant rate. How long would 10 identical machines take to produce 10 such items?
A. 2.5 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 50 minutes
49. Find the next letter in the sequence: A, C, F, J, O, __.
A. S
B. T
C. U
D. V
50. A clock shows 3:00. What is the smaller angle between the hour hand and minute hand?
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Answer key and explanations.
Use this section after completing all 50 questions. Each correct answer includes a brief explanation to help you revise the underlying concept that will be helpful for your exam.
Physics explanations for the MCQs Practice Test
1. C — 12 m/s. Use \(v=u+at=0+(2\times6)=12\text{ m/s}\).
2. B — 3 A. Ohm’s law gives \(I=V/R=12/4=3\text{ A}\).
3. A — 5 m. Maximum height is \(H=u^2\sin^2\theta/(2g)\). Substituting gives \(400\times0.25/20=5\text{ m}\).
4. D — Isochoric. An isochoric process occurs at constant volume.
5. B — +5 D. Lens power \(P=1/f\), with focal length in metres. Therefore, \(P=1/0.20=+5\text{ D}\).
6. C — 1/8. Twelve hours represent three half-lives. The remaining fraction is \((1/2)^3=1/8\).
7. C — 2 m. Wavelength \(\lambda=v/f=340/170=2\text{ m}\).
8. D — 6 μF. For parallel capacitors, capacitances add: \(C=2+4=6\text{ μF}\).
9. C — 50 J. Work \(W=Fs\cos\theta=10\times5\times1=50\text{ J}\).
10. A — Maximum kinetic energy increases. The maximum kinetic energy is \(K_{\max}=hf-\phi\). Increasing the frequency above the threshold increases the electron kinetic energy when the work function is unchanged.
Chemistry explanations
11. B — 0.5 mol. Number of moles \(=22/44=0.5\text{ mol}\).
12. C — pH 4. Assuming complete ionization, \([H^+]=10^{-4}\text{ M}\), so pH \(=-\log_{10}[H^+]=4\).
13. D — Fluorine. Fluorine has the highest electronegativity on the Pauling scale.
14. C — +6. Let sulfur’s oxidation number be \(x\): \(2(+1)+x+4(-2)=0\). Therefore, \(x=+6\).
15. B — Covalent bond. Covalent bonding involves sharing electron pairs between atoms.
16. A — Shifts towards ammonia. The product side contains two moles of gas, compared with four moles on the reactant side. Higher pressure favours the side with fewer gaseous moles.
17. A — Tollens’ reagent. Many aldehydes reduce Tollens’ reagent to metallic silver, forming a silver mirror.
18. B — sp². Each carbon in ethene forms three sigma bonds and participates in a pi bond, consistent with sp² hybridization.
19. C — Benzene. Benzene is a cyclic, conjugated aromatic compound with six delocalized pi electrons.
20. C — 0.4 M. Molarity \(=0.2/0.5=0.4\text{ mol/L}\).
Zoology explanations
21. B — Nephron. The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.
22. C — Insulin. Insulin promotes glucose uptake and storage, helping lower blood glucose.
23. D — Cerebellum. The cerebellum coordinates movement, posture, and balance.
24. C — Red blood cells. Haemoglobin in red blood cells carries most oxygen in the blood.
25. A — Plasma cells. Activated B lymphocytes can differentiate into plasma cells, which secrete antibodies.
26. B — Meiosis. Meiosis reduces chromosome number by half and produces haploid cells used in sexual reproduction.
27. C — Plasmodium species. Protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium cause malaria.
28. D — Pulmonary vein. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
29. C — Alveoli. Thin alveolar walls and surrounding capillaries facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
30. B — 1/4. The cross Aa × Aa produces a 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa genotype ratio. Only aa shows the recessive phenotype.
Botany explanations
31. C — Chloroplast. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and are the main sites of photosynthesis.
32. B — Xylem. Xylem transports water and mineral ions from roots towards the shoots.
33. D — Auxin. Auxin promotes cell elongation in suitable tissues and contributes to apical dominance.
34. B — Gas exchange and regulation of water loss. Stomata allow carbon dioxide entry and oxygen and water vapour exchange; guard cells regulate their opening.
35. C — Mitosis. Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same chromosome number as the parent cell and supports growth and repair.
36. B — Phloem. Phloem transports sugars and other organic substances from sources to sinks.
37. C — Ovule. After fertilization, the ovule typically develops into a seed, while the ovary develops into the fruit.
38. B — Rhizobium. Rhizobium bacteria form associations with legume roots and fix atmospheric nitrogen.
39. C — Pyramid of energy. Usable energy decreases at successive trophic levels, making the energy pyramid upright.
40. D — Gymnosperms. Gymnosperms produce exposed or “naked” seeds that are not enclosed in an ovary-derived fruit.
Mental Agility Test explanations
41. C — 42. The differences are 4, 6, 8, and 10. The next difference is 12, giving \(30+12=42\).
42. B — All doctors are educated. If every doctor is a graduate and every graduate is educated, all doctors must be educated.
43. C — 80%. Percentage correct \(=(40/50)\times100=80\%\).
44. D — Cube. A cube is three-dimensional, while a square, triangle, and circle are two-dimensional plane figures.
45. A — EPH. Each letter advances by one position: D → E, O → P, and G → H.
46. B — 5 km. The route forms a right triangle, so displacement \(=\sqrt{3^2+4^2}=5\text{ km}\).
47. C — Eating. A book is used for reading, just as a fork is used for eating.
48. B — 5 minutes. Each machine produces one item in five minutes. Ten machines working simultaneously can produce ten items in the same five minutes.
49. C — U. The letter positions increase by 2, 3, 4, and 5. The next increase is 6: O → U.
50. C — 90°. At 3:00, the minute hand points to 12 and the hour hand points to 3. The smaller angle is 90°.
How to calculate your practice score
For this practice session that uses the standard MEC marking System of +1 for a correct response and −0.25 for an incorrect response, use:
[ \text{Score}=\text{Correct}-0.25(\text{Incorrect}) \]
Unanswered questions receive zero in this calculation.
For example, if you answer 40 questions correctly, 6 incorrectly, and left 4 unanswered:
[ 40-(6\times0.25)=38.5 \]
Your Practice exam score for this MECEE Mock test would be 38.5 out of 50. This is a raw practice score, not an official MECEE-BL percentile or admission prediction.
Preparation tips for MECEE-BL
These are the preparation tips for the MBBS entrance questionsin Nepal. They will help you focus on what you are preparing now.
- Study and focus on the updated and revised MEC syllabus before choosing chapter-wise practice sets.
- Review and jot down short formulas, Important chemical reactions, biological processes, and important definitions regularly.
- Always try to practice the numerical questions under timed conditions.
- Make it a practice to review every incorrect answer and be clear on the underlying concept.
- Attempt longer mock tests to build speed, accuracy and examination stamina.
Official syllabus and further reading
Disclaimer: This article is an independent educational resource. All 50 questions are original practice questions prepared for revision. They are not reproduced or represented as official MEC examination questions, and the practice test does not guarantee admission or a particular examination result.
Candidates should consult the latest official MEC syllabus and notices for authoritative examination information.
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